Endeavor Air Indoctrination Training Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the standard approach category letter in the provided material?
• In a three-RVR system, which statement is true?
• Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is best described as which of the following?
• For an SIC with less than 100 hours in type, which conditions constitute Special Use as listed?
• The separation between large aircraft following heavy aircraft enroute cannot be waived by flight crew.
• Go-around from a visual approach at a controlled airport?
• LAHSO stands for which aviation term?
• What is the flight time limit past 365 days?
• According to TERPS, the minimum climb gradient is measured as which value per nautical mile?
• Which sequence of events correctly describes holdover-related deice/anti-ice procedures?
• Under Canadian Alternate Destination rules, which of the following is a required characteristic of the destination?
• Large aircraft following heavy aircraft enroute should be separated by _____ miles.
• In the troposphere, temp. ___________ with height.
• Contaminated Runway is defined as 25% of the runway surface area contaminated by which conditions?
• Maximum flight duty period in 672 consecutive hours?
• After scuba diving to depths greater than 15 feet, how long must a pilot wait before flying?
• What is the primary method for calculating weight and balance information?
• Contaminated Runway criteria example: 25% area with standing water 1/8" qualifies as contaminated.
• Maximum descent rate for a stabilized approach at 1,000 fpm?
• What is a Dispatch Release?
• Prior to flight, both pilots must review MM01 to the last Airworthiness Release.
• When does the First Climb Segment begin and end?
• What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed below 10,000 feet MSL?
• A pilot may not fly within how many hours after donating blood?
• How often are MV & LOE required?
• Which item is NOT part of First Officer currency requirements?
• When must crewmembers wear their shoulder harness?
• How often are pilots required to attend CQ ground training?
• Where should physiological night rest take place?
• What factors are included in MFPTW as described?
• The company minimum for takeoff in RVR terms is what value?
• What is the weight difference between Standard Checked baggage and Heavy Checked baggage?
• Are Endeavor pilots always acclimated to local conditions?
• Which action would indicate a no-show under standard duty policies?
• Radiation cooling of the water will occur ____________ than the ground.
• In the tropopause, temp. ________________ w/ height.
• Which statement describes the fatigue-management period in crew scheduling?
• Which outcome is associated with uneven heating?
• What is the maximum airspeed loss threshold that prohibits takeoff or approach if reported below 1,000' AGL by a similar sized aircraft?
• Which statement defines Flight Time?
• What is the primary role of Complaint Resolution Officials (CROs)?
• Takeoff SAFETY Speed (V2) for weights 14,001 and above is which value?
• If no flight is conducted after logging a flight number, write ________ next to the __________.
• In the Distance Method for determining VDP, how is distance from the runway estimated?
• Minimum dispatch fuel must include fuel to the destination, fuel to the most distant alternate, and how many minutes of normal cruise?
• Rest requirements in past 168 hours?
• Regarding forecast ceiling, what is the minimum required relative to FAF altitude or MDA?
• Vref is defined as which of the following?
• Non-RVSM airspace altitude interval selection is typically what?
• MRLW stands for which of the following?
• Day VFR between 1200' and 10000' above ground level requires which minimums in the given material?
• Go-around should be initiated at what altitude when an abnormal condition is detected?
• Clouds form due to which combination?
• Regarding Type I deicing fluid, which statement is correct about heating?
• Which items are not included in Basic Operating Weight (BOW)?
• Which statement about Type II, III, and IV fluids is correct?
• Endeavor is authorized to conduct operations in which regions?
• If a discrepancy was entered in error, which action is prohibited?
• Which term describes an extensive body of air with uniform temperature and moisture in a horizontal plane?
• In instrument approaches, what does DH stand for?
• Changes to the release must be jointly approved by the captain and dispatcher. Which of the following is included in that requirement?
• When must a medical certificate be submitted and to whom?
• In a rolling 672-hour period, what is the maximum total flight time allowed?
• What is the minimum number of years of operational history the new logbook must provide?
• V1 is defined as which speed?
• A Flight Duty Period begins and ends at which times?
• Who may extend the Flight Duty Period before takeoff?
• Icing is usually found below 27,000 AGL in temperatures from +2°C to -20°C; what should you do?
• Are SICs required to have line checks?
• Endeavor and most large aircraft measure CG as which of the following?
• PICs line checks: frequency and assignment method?
• If a flight blocks out then returns to the gate and cancels, is this considered a flight segment?
• In and above the tropopause, aircraft efficiency changes with height. What is the trend?
• How often must a VOR be checked?
• Destination weather instrument approach is governed by which criterion?
• Besides exemption 3585, when is a second alternate needed?
• When using RNAV for 1 or 2 Nav, which minima are applicable?
• The 'flight time' limit refers to which description?
• The tropopause height changes with temperature increase. What happens to tropopause height when temperature increases?
• Each airport listed on the release must have a wx report of at least:
• For night takeoff minimums, which lighting options can control the minimums?
• Advection fog forms when warmer air moves over cold ground or water surface.
• Holdover time begins at which moment?
• What is the best definition of an Unforeseen Operational Circumstance?
• What minimum distance should be maintained from convective cells when flying between 10,000 and 25,000 feet?
• What is the planeside baggage weight?
• If a pilot is scheduled for more than 3 consecutive nighttime operations, the required rest is at least how many hours in a hotel each night?
• Route when communications are lost should follow which priority?
• Night takeoff minimums include which of the following RVR values?
• What is the maximum distance between the departure airport and the designated takeoff alternate for CRJ200?
• Who has the responsibility to keep manuals current?
• CQ training designations?
• How should you escape ice in stratus clouds?
• Emergency action limits refer to what concept?
• In Canada, which statement best describes crew clearance requirements?
• Within 5 minutes of takeoff, having exceeded the holdover time, crew must either return to deice again or perform __________.
• ATC position reports must include which element?
• The Acceleration Segment ends when which event occurs?
• Circadian low occurs?
• The Fourth Climb Segment begins at what event?
• Which document must accompany the new logbook as part of airworthiness readiness?
• Which component is identified as a critical surface for de-icing procedures?
• Which weather condition is required for a VFR departure when IFR clearance cannot be obtained?
• Takeoff SAFETY Speed (V2) is which value in general?
• In the event of loss of communications, which altitude should be used?
• What is the maximum number of pet kennels allowed on a 200 aircraft?
• In Exemption 17347, the term 'Two alts' refers to?
• Which statement about MFPTW relative to MRTW is true?
• Which items are included in Basic Operating Weight (BOW)?
• Type IV de-icing/anti-icing fluid is used to ______ and is ______ in color?
• Captain must notify dispatch of which scenarios?
• Wake turbulence vortices may linger the longest over a runway under which wind condition?
• Which component is included in the calculation of Required Takeoff Distance?
• Altitude change greater than 6,000 feet up to FL310 requires joint approval. True or false?
• MDA stands for what in instrument approach terminology?
• In a four RVR system, how many sensors must be operative?
• Which statement best describes the Pressure Gradient Force?
• What are the Endeavor alcohol consumption limits?
• Takeoff Action Speed is commonly abbreviated as V1. Which option contains V1?
• Can a celebrity animal occupy a seat, and if so, how many per flight?
• If an aircraft remains on the ground beyond three hours, what must be provided to passengers?
• What best defines a flight segment?
• RO stands for which sensor?
• Which factors are included in MRTW calculations?
• Which statement accurately describes the scope of Endeavor's authorized operations?
• Scheduled time of report for duty limits is based on which time reference?
• In the Time Method for determining VDP, how is the time prior to the MAP calculated?
• Under (M) Procedures, which statement is true regarding who can perform certain functions?
• Which statement best describes Coded Departure Routes (CDR)?
• After de-icing, which clearance related to taxiing is required?
• V2 is defined as which speed?
• Minutes-in-trail describes which aspect of traffic spacing?
• Which statement best describes the function of the MM01 form in flight operations?
• Takeoff ACTION Speed is commonly abbreviated as V1. What is the V1 value?
• In weight and balance terminology, what is a Station?
• Near the ground they can sink up to 200 feet. Which option describes this fact?
• What does Exemption 17347 permit?
• Which statement best defines Flight Time?
• In Split Duty, the rest opportunity must be at least how many hours?
• If exemption 3585 is used, how many alternates are required?
• Passengers may not be on the aircraft on the ground for greater than how many hours without an opportunity to deplane?
• Which statement is true about Endeavor alcohol policy?
• The wake turbulence vortex strength is greatest when the aircraft is which combination?
• ATC position reports include IFR/VFR status.
• During circadian low, maximum sleepiness occurs between which times?
• Which description best defines the No Transgression Zone?
• Which aircraft type has a higher maximum number of pet kennels, 200 or 900?
• Front is defined as:
• Which statement about flight duty period endpoints is true?
• Which statement best describes temperature change with height in the troposphere?
• V2 equals which speed?
• Duty time ends at which event?
• How does Coriolis deflection vary with latitude?
• Vref is used as a reference for which operation?
• What does Max En-Route Takeoff Weight (METW) represent?
• When can you cancel IFR?
• Lapse Rate is best described as:
• What happens if you fail to report within 5 minutes after your report time?
• Do not attempt a takeoff or approach when there is evidence of a gust front on or near the runway in use.
• For Two Nav operations, how are the ceiling and visibility minima adjusted?
• Which statement best describes a frontal zone?
• The most turbulent side of a jet stream is which side?
• Which statement about MFPTW is true?
• Factored Landing Distance is calculated by multiplying Demonstrated Landing Distance by which factor?
• How is the weight of children aged 2 through 12 calculated for aircraft weight and balance?
• Regarding acclimation, which statement is correct for Endeavor pilots?
• Vfto stands for which speed?
• Using exemption 3585 affects which planning requirement?
• Which item is listed as a critical surface for de-icing procedures?
• What does Vmgc stand for?
• Which items are included in First Officer currency requirements?
• Which combination of fuels constitutes the dispatched fuel plan as described?
• Icing is considered severe when
• Which term best describes an unplanned event of insufficient duration to adjust schedules?
• Wingtip vortices can sink up to __________.
• Who establishes the standard gross weight as a limiting value for an aircraft?
• The takeoff altitude must not be more than how many minutes away from the departure airport at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative?
• Do diversions count as a flight segment?
• What is the typical altitude range for low clouds?
• Which statement about the Coriolis Force is correct?
• What does MTOW represent?
• What does MAC stand for in the context of CG measurements?
• Straight-in approach is authorized if which condition is met?
• Ramp/Taxi Weight is calculated as which of the following?
• For (M) Procedures, who normally completes the procedures?
• F-CANS refers to which weather products?
• Which term describes the boundary between two different air masses?
• Within Class C and D airspace, what is the minimum altitude and indicated airspeed requirement within 4 NM?
• How early can you report for duty?
• Which statement about exit row seating is true?
• Max En-Route Takeoff Weight (METW) is defined as the max takeoff weight allowing for which condition?
• What is the cabin pet carry limit for flight crew and coach passengers combined?
• Which de-icing/anti-icing fluid color is green?
• Which statement best describes the characteristics of a stabilized approach at or above 1,000' AFE?
• Which statement about exit row seating is true?
• The old logbook must remain with the aircraft until a newly initiated logbook has how many airworthiness releases and provides at least how many years of operational history?
• A discrepancy logged in MM01 since the last airworthiness release has what effect?
• Which statement accurately describes MV/LOE training frequency?
• What time do you report for duty in domicile?
• For how long must a PIC who has not flown into a destination familiarize himself with the airport?
• For RNAV operations using 1 NAVAID, how many navigational aids are considered for the minima?
• In the MTOW calculation, what is subtracted from ramp weight to obtain MTOW?
• Flight duty period begins and ends?
• What is the standard weight of aviation fuel at sea level and standard temperatures?
• Under which conditions can IFR be canceled?
• V1 takeoff speed applies to which weight range?
• Which statement accurately describes VDP determination methods?
• Guidance for PA announcements during delays such as Irregular Operations (IROP) can be found in which chapter of the FOM?
• Which statement is true about wingtip vortices?
• Which of the following individuals cannot sit in the exit row?
• Speed limit under Class B airspace is:
• Traffic Pattern Altitude (TPA) during go-around at uncontrolled airport?
• What is the minimum information required for departure, destination, and alternate airports?
• If ACARS is not available, through which channel is weight and balance information relayed?
• Block Time starts and ends when?
• MM01 is a page used for what purpose?
• Altitude change greater than 4,000 feet above FL310 requires joint approval. True or false?
• Sterile cockpit rules apply under which conditions?
• For a One Nav Cat 1 operation, how should the ceiling and visibility minima be adjusted?
• What is the maximum flight time allowed in 672 consecutive hours?
• Runway Condition Codes (RCC) are issued when more than 25% of the runway is contaminated.
• Which of the following is a Part 91 flight type as listed in the documentation?
• What is the maximum distance between the departure airport and the designated takeoff altitude for CRJ900?
• Which type of icing can be expected in cumuloform clouds?
• During the Fourth Climb Segment, the aircraft climbs to at least what altitude AGL?
• Within one hour before and after ETA, what is the minimum visibility related to fog or restriction?
• What is the maximum descent rate allowed below 10,000 feet MSL?
• Who determines it is necessary to apply Special Use conditions for an SIC with limited hours in type?
• What does the acronym IROP stand for in airline terminology?
• When landing behind a large aircraft, plan to land ______ its touchdown point.
• Which statement accurately defines Unforeseen Operational Circumstance?
• Flying through any front, a change in which variables is expected?
• What is the typical altitude range for high clouds?
• In 168 consecutive hours, what is the maximum allowable flight duty period?
• In Exemption 17347, the conditional language used in the TAF to permit dispatch includes which terms?
• After a discrepancy and corrective action is logged, a new ______ page must be started.
• What is the expected outcome when a stabilized approach crosses the runway threshold?
• In a non-radar environment, large aircraft departing behind heavy aircraft should be separated by ______ miles or ______ minutes.
• When is ATC clearance deviation allowed?
• What does the Radial Magnetic Indicator (RMI) display?
• Uneven heating creates __________.
• If on the ground for more than 2 hours, passengers must have which items available?
• VFR weather minimum above 10000' MSL for day or night is which set?
• Isobars are lines of equal pressure.
• Two Nav adjustments to the MDA/DA increase by how many feet?
• A physiological night rest is defined as rest between which times and where?
• Operating limits require either SIC or PIC to have how many hours in type?
• What is the descent rate limit below 2,500 feet AGL?
• Which braking action note is associated with ice in the runway notes?
• What is the hold speed for MHA 6000?
• Stabilized approach at 500' AFE criteria?
• Solar heating of the ground will occur ________ than the water.
• A microburst can be characterized by a downdraft of which rate?
• What are the standard crew weights for pilots and flight attendants?
• Under the takeoff alternate distance rule, CJR 200 equals how many miles?
• In non-RVSM airspace, altitude intervals are typically what distance apart?
• In a three RVR system, how many sensors must be operative to meet minimums?
• Before takeoff, a flight duty period may be extended by the PIC up to a maximum of how many hours?
• Stabilized Approach, No lower than 500' AFE: which conditions?
• In the event of FOM and FAR conflicts, which takes precedence?
• Fit for duty means?
• Which description best defines Suitable Accommodation for a pilot?
• Which statement describes both solar heating and radiative cooling correctly?
• Which option is NOT listed as a Part 91 flight type?
• What are standard takeoff minimums?
• RCLM stands for which runway feature?
• For One Nav Cat 1 operations, which statement best describes the required adjustments to ceiling and visibility?
• Which of the following is NOT a force that affects the wind?
• Which statement is correct regarding time waivers in separations?
• RCC reporting channels are
• Miles-in-trail describes which aspect of traffic spacing?
• Which combination correctly describes the dispatch fuel plan components?
• The Max. Runway Landing Weight (MRLW) is determined by which factors?
• Stabilized Approach, No lower than 1,000' AFE: which criteria?
• Requirements to accept a visual approach include:
• What is the maximum flight time in 365 consecutive days?
• Who has the final authority for safety of flight?
• Which of the following is considered allowable personnel on Part 91 flights?
• Are rest periods reducible?
• What is MFPTW (Max Flight Plan Takeoff Weight) based on?
• Under the rules, takeoff alternate distance guidelines specify a maximum of how many hours?
• Revalidation of airworthiness release requires which elements?
• Taking off behind a large aircraft, plan to rotate _________ its rotation point and climb ________ its path.
• Which item is NOT described as part of Suitable Accommodation?
• Jet streams are typically located near which atmospheric boundary?
• Short Fuse Watch/Deferred Maintenance items are entered in which sequence?
• Stratus clouds have extensive horizontal layers and little or no vertical development. Which statement describes stratus clouds?
• MID is the designation for which type of sensor?
• Lower than standard takeoff minimums can be found on the back of which Jeppesen page?
• Which frequency is listed as available to provide FICON when using a Class G airport?
• Which type of icing can be expected in stratoform clouds?
• What is the primary purpose of the de-icing process?
• What is the typical altitude range for mid clouds?
• If TDZ RVR is unavailable, what can be substituted?
• Which scenario requires an immediate go-around?
• Past 365 days flight time limit is which value?
• What is the flight duty limit past 672 hours?
• Rest required between duty periods?
• What minimum distance should be maintained from convective cells when flying below 10,000 feet?
• What does Exemption 17203 permit?
• The second climb segment ends at which altitude?
• Emergency action limits are defined as which of the following?
• Sterile cockpit rules apply during which of the following?
• Which statement describes the relationship between solar heating and radiative cooling correctly?
• What defines the Max Runway Takeoff Weight (MRTW)?
• The Tropopause ranges from 20,000 to 45,000 feet in altitude.
• Before removing the old logbook, how many airworthiness releases must the new logbook contain?
• In Split Duty, rest opportunity must be at least how many hours?
• If IFR clearance cannot be obtained, a flight may depart VFR provided:
• What is a consequence of a temperature inversion on atmospheric stability?
• Duty time begins and ends at what times?
• In Canada upon arrival
• In the stratosphere, temp. ______________ w/ height.
• Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the amount of water vapor in the air to the maximum amount of water vapor that could be present if the water vapor were at saturation conditions, and it changes with temperature.
• What does Vfe denote in aircraft performance?
• Departing VFR, what is the furthest distance you can proceed without an IFR clearance?
• Which phenomenon forms as surface clouds due to nocturnal cooling at or near the ground surface?
• What minimum distance should be maintained from convective cells when flying above 25,000 feet?
• Lapse Rate is the rate of decrease of which atmospheric variable with height?
• Air Mass is defined as:
• Which feature is explicitly included in the definition of Suitable Accommodation?
• For (O) Procedures, who normally completes the procedures?
• Which statement describes E9's FICON usage?
• Thunderstorms are typically on which side of a cold front?
• How is the maximum takeoff gross weight calculated?
• What is the flight duty limit for operations in the 168-hour window?
• Which north reference is used by meteorologists and which by controllers?
• What is the order of fuel burn described for dispatch planning?
• Which CQ training events are required and their cadence?
• Which crew roles are explicitly recognized as allowed on Part 91 flights in the documentation?
• RVR stands for what?
• Prior to takeoff within the holdover time, the crew must accomplish a __________.
• How late can you check in for duty?
• Temperature inversions cause which type of atmosphere?
• When ACARS is inoperative, what four-word entry must flight crew enter (the acronym OOOI) when a flight is operated?
• What are the standard weights for adults and children during summer (May 1 to Oct 31)?
• MID stands for?
• Which statement is true about Entered In Error (EIE) entries?
• Landing minimums are based on which factor?
• To use class G airport for IFR operations, the required facility is
• Which option correctly states the descent rate limit below 10,000 feet MSL?
• Which set of items is included in the minimum information for departure planning?
• What is the standard baggage weight for Standard Checked baggage?
• What are the standard weights for adults and children during winter (Nov 1 to Apr 30)?
• Which option is NOT an RCC reporting method
• During which period must pilots wear blazers?
• How should you escape ice in cumulus clouds?
• Duty refers to what?
• Which term denotes the speed at which engine failure is assumed to occur?
• Which statement best describes rest periods?
• Which cloud types are classified as high clouds?
• Relative humidity of 70% means the air holds 70% of the maximum water vapor for the current temperature.
• VFR weather minimums in Class G space at night are which values?
• In a four-RVR system, how many sensors must be operative?
• What is the flight time limit past 672 hours?
• When can a flight crew accept a visual approach?
• Demonstrated Landing Distance is defined as which of the following?
• The jet stream is generally located in which atmospheric layer?
• Relative humidity changes with temperature.
• Type I deicing fluid is used to ______ and is ______ in color?
• If an obstacle penetrates a slope of 152' per NM, what could TERPS require for departure?
• Which statement best describes the effect of a temperature inversion on vertical mixing?
• Which term defines the total flight time from block-in to block-out?
• A missed approach must be initiated under which of the following conditions?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a critical surface requiring de-icing attention?
• What do night marshals use to signal aircraft?
• In RVSM airspace above FL290, flight levels are assigned as which type?
• Supplemental oxygen usage when one pilot in cockpit is required above which altitude?
• FE stands for which sensor?
• Surfaces treated with anti-icing fluids appear _______________.
• Deferred items are located in which configuration or equipment list?
• Which statement about missed approaches is true?
• The captain may authorize the flight attendant to offer complimentary liquor if the flight is delayed longer than how many hours?
• Route changes in excess of 100 miles require what action?
• When must shoulder harness be worn by crew?
• If both pilots consume meals from the same vendor in flight, by how many minutes should their meals be staggered?
• What is Vef?
• Flight segment consists of a takeoff and landing.
• Standard takeoff minimums for a 2-engine aircraft is which of the following?
• When ACARS is unavailable, monitor which frequencies?
• On approach, the approach lighting allows you to descend to at least how many feet above the touchdown zone (TDZ) altitude?
• Which statement correctly describes Exemption 17203?
• What does Coded Departure Routes (CDR) refer to?
• Aircraft may not dispatch to a destination unless the forecast shows at or above what value at the ETA?
• In the Northern Hemisphere, how do winds circulate around pressure systems?
• RO stands for which sensor during rollout?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding First Officer currency takeoffs and landings?
• Vref stands for which?
• Under (O) Procedures, which statement is true regarding who may perform certain functions?
• SICs line checks: frequency and assignment method?
• Which location is NOT listed as an authorized Endeavor operation region?
• What is the maximum descent rate below 2,500 feet AGL?
• After de-icing, which information must be communicated?
• Aerodata T/O & Landing Reports: What document is generated and printed with the Flight Release Package?
• LAHSO stands for which of the following?
• Under what circumstances can you be outside controlled airspace?
• The abbreviation CDL refers to which of the following terms?
• What effect does surface friction have on wind?
• What are the alcohol regulations before training or reporting for duty?
• RCC stands for
• Takeoff alternate distance requirements specify not more than how long at normal cruise?
• When reporting for duty away from domicile, how far in advance should you report?
• What is the required physiological night rest duration?
• Which approach types are we not approved for?
• When are you released from duty?